Global 6000 Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• How far from the airfield will the ILS LOC be automatically tuned by the FMS if an ILS approach is loaded?
• What is the maximum flaps 16 speed?
• If auto-brake is selected on, under what conditions will it apply?
• What is the maximum usable fuel load in the aft tank?
• How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole power source?
• Which pairing accurately describes the two main engine rotating assemblies?
• What is Vmca?
• When AC power is available, how is DC power supplied to the BATT and DC ESS buses?
• What maintains positive fuel tank pressure in flight?
• After selecting MAN pressurization, what information is displayed on the STATUS page?
• Which statement is true about the main gear inboard doors after gear bay inspection on the ground?
• What does rotating the HUD control knob accomplish?
• What is the effect of closing the HYD SOV on the hydraulic pump?
• Which value is associated with the CABIN DELTA P warning message?
• Which occupancy distribution is specified for the Global 6000?
• What sequence must be followed to unlock the thrust reverser?
• If the cowl anti-ice is ON, what happens to engine idle?
• Where is the external DC power receptacle located on the aircraft?
• How is the auto-throttle GA mode cleared?
• Which conditions require cowl anti-ice on the ground or in flight?
• What is the primary purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control yoke?
• What is the center of gravity range for the Global 6000 expressed as a percentage of MAC?
• What is the minimum autopilot engagement height after takeoff?
• How can you tell what is selected for the CVS display?
• What is the minimum/maximum runway slope?
• What is the purpose of the DC POWER EMERGENCY OVERRIDE switch?
• What is the maximum flaps 6 speed?
• When the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the hydraulic SOV?
• Will a physical CB trip cause a CAS message?
• Under what condition will RAM AIR not enter the aircraft?
• What is the priority for hydraulic ACMP pumps?
• Which systems are not monitored by EMS?
• What does changing the landing runway on the Arrival Data page accomplish?
• Which action accompanies auto-brake activation?
• Bleed leak is depicted on the synoptic page by what color of the flow line?
• What temperature offset is said to approximate climb power when using Flex?
• What is the time frame to replenish the APU oil after shutdown?
• What is the maximum certified operating altitude?
• When the ground spoilers are armed, how many ground spoiler panels (GS) are installed?
• What type of portable fire extinguisher is located in the cockpit?
• How does the crew inhibit the terrain awareness alerting when landing at an airport not in the FMS database?
• What is the maximum operating speed for extending/retracting the landing gear?
• What is the maximum ambient temperature for takeoff?
• What is the purpose of the AC power center (ACPC)?
• What does the over-speed cue indicate for Mmo values?
• Is manual reversion available after a DU failure, and if so, how?
• What is the purpose of SFV 1 and SFV 2 located in the aft bulkhead?
• What is the typical cabin altitude at FL450?
• On the PFD, mis-compares and faults are shown in which colors?
• Which statement correctly identifies a limitation of fuel return to tank (FRTT) operation?
• Under which condition does the EMER LIGHTS illuminate when the EMER LIGHTS switch is set to ARM?
• What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180 degree turn with the Global 6000 when considering landing gear clearance?
• What is the maximum starting altitude in flight for the APU?
• When weather radar is displayed on both the HSI and the adjacent MFW in MAP mode, what happens to the radar range?
• If the aircraft is flown at speeds higher than the maximum speed for a particular category, what may occur?
• Which engine bleed source is used for cowl anti-ice?
• Without supplement 29 restrictions, what is the steepest angle for approaches?
• Which electrically driven hydraulic pump corresponds to AC Bus 3 in this aircraft configuration?
• Once disconnected, can the ailerons be reconnected inflight?
• How does the cabin altitude warning system respond to airports above 7000 ft when the aircraft descends below 41,000 ft and the landing elevation is 7230 ft or higher?
• May operations from unprepared runways be conducted?
• What is the maximum outside air temperature for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning operations?
• The cowl anti-ice valve (CAIV) defaults to what position?
• Which scenario would require manual entry of field elevation?
• Which DC Buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation?
• Where is the fuel SOV located, and how is the valve closed?
• Where is the external AC panel located?
• Are there any limitations on the use of MAX spoilers?
• Which of the following is NOT a trigger for the seat belt sign illumination when the SEAT BLTS switch is AUTO?
• Is the data field for runway slope automatic or manual entry only?
• What does an external AC AVAIL light on the electrical panel indicate?
• How are the brake wear indicator pins normally checked?
• Which pumps supply normal hydraulic power to the Hydraulic system?
• In airport analysis, what does the limit code ST indicate?
• Which statement is true about the balance of the mains following an APU-related 400 lb imbalance after takeoff?
• When the EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON, which action occurs regarding the outflow valves?
• What are the NWS limits for the Tiller and Rudder?
• How does the pilot know when engine limitations are exceeded?
• If the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during thrust lever advancement for takeoff, what will occur?
• Which hydraulic systems operate the normal brake system?
• True or false: Each engine fire detection sensing element has a unique temperature activation.
• Which program encourages using Flex Takeoff data as much as possible?
• Takeoff procedure if crosswind component exceeds 20 knots?
• When the Ditching switch is selected to ON, which of the following are provided?
• The total starter operation time is controlled by which system?
• What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Global 6000?
• How are the thrust reversers actuated?
• With the wing anti-ice cross-bleed switch in AUTO, the cross-bleed valve opens on bleed source failure?
• When there are multiple CAS messages, what happens when the ECL is selected on an MFD?
• At what altitude must flight spoilers be retracted on approach?
• While in flight, what is the priority bleed source for engine starting?
• How are the engine fire detection sensing elements arranged?
• The Forward External Service Panel is used to control which lighting function?
• Which equipment provides fire suppression in baggage compartments, lavatories, and cabin closets?
• Power for the area lights is derived from which power source?
• If powering an AC Bus above 37,000 feet, which hydraulic pumps must be OFF?
• What is the maximum available reverse thrust above 65 KIAS?
• Automatic AFT transfer stops when the AFT tank quantity falls below what?
• What is the maximum takeoff weight for the Global 6000?
• How many AC buses can one generator power?
• When will the oil indication system display quantities?
• How many redundant channels does each BMC contain?
• How do fuel tanks behave on hot days (above roughly 12°C) relative to the specified weight?
• Which of the following is a primary function of the bleed air system?
• When the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the AC VFGs?
• When the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the fire bottle squibs?
• Among the MFS panel functions, which has the highest priority?
• What is the function of the NACA scoops on the ground?
• Which colors are used to depict the flow lines on the system synoptic pages?
• What is maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended?
• When manually entering landing speeds, what color do the speeds appear on the tape?
• How do you switch the selected altitude readout above the altitude tape from feet to meters?
• On a wet runway with low autobrake, if landing distance exceeds runway length, what does the amber indication mean?
• When is engine oil replenishment allowed?
• Which is the primary source for engine starting on the ground?
• Can the pilot reset a thermal circuit breaker from the EMS CDU?
• What happens if the oxygen quantity falls below the minimum for dispatch?
• Where is the cabin escape rope located?
• Ice and rain protection is provided for which systems?
• What effect does MAX selection have on spoiler behavior?
• When external AC power is connected and in normal mode, which buses are powered?
• What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve (CBW)?
• After 15 minutes of normal operation, what happens to the service lights if not manually turned off?
• Does adjusting the ST control affect the interphone sidetone?
• What components are isolated from System 3 when the RAT deploys?
• How do you verify the correct version of the checklist is loaded in the ECL?
• Besides overriding autopilot, what else can the TCS set depending on the mode selected?
• The OXYGEN LO QTY CAS will also appear if which condition occurs?
• What is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing without supplement 20 restrictions?
• If there is a failure of one wing anti-ice system, under what condition will the wing cross bleed valve automatically open?
• What is the maximum altitude for continuous operation of the passenger oxygen masks?
• How is wind correction for crosswinds over 20 knots added to takeoff distance?
• Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes in the normal braking configuration?
• Which condition is required to use AUX PRESS?
• Which of the following speeds is the highest among those listed?
• In HIGH CPCS mode, the normal descent rate is 800 ft/min, but what is the limit when the aircraft VSI is less than 2,300 ft/min?
• The probe heat system is ON when which condition is satisfied?
• What does the FADEC do when ITT limits are exceeded?
• When is the gear warning mute functional?
• What procedure must be used with the APU FIRE DISCH handle during an APU fire if the second fire extinguisher requires discharging?
• Typically, why would you change the landing runway on the Arrival Data page?
• What is the maximum usable fuel load in the center tank?
• The NAV INIT page includes a note that verification of the database status is required. What is the reason for this verification?
• Which flight levels are listed for Mmo values?
• Is half bank available during a missed approach in NAV mode?
• If a CAS message was displayed in the CAS window, but has cleared itself, how do you view the checklist for the missing CAS message?
• Where does the SVS image come from?
• What is Vmo below 8,000 feet?
• What color gage indicates the RAT pre-charge pressure?
• What is Rotorbow?
• When the master disconnect switch is held, what additional function occurs?
• Before using the oil replenishing system, the APU must be shut down for at least how many minutes?
• How is engine oil quantity displayed?
• Which trim mode has priority when multiple trim commands are active?
• What value is said to approximate climb power when using Flex?
• Which item is located behind the co-pilot's seat as emergency evacuation equipment?
• If the ECL is displayed on both servers, how do the two copies behave?
• Weight-on-wheels sensing is accomplished by which mechanism?
• Where is power for the Refuel/Defuel panel taken?
• Selecting the TRIM AIR PBA OFF closes which valves?
• Auto-brake will activate only if which condition is met?
• What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Global 6000?
• How is fuel moved from the forward auxiliary fuel tank to the center tank?
• What type of brakes are used on the Global 5/6000?
• When does the RAT generator go offline?
• Based on current vertical rate, altitude trend vector represents approximate altitude in how many seconds?
• How long does the cabin pressure controller remain scheduled at the pre-pressurization altitude after takeoff?
• What is the maximum negative relief differential pressure?
• Which statement correctly describes the effect of the AFCS 1/2 switch on mode behavior?
• How many spoiler panels are located on each wing?
• What is the maximum operating altitude with the landing gear extended?
• How many oxygen bottles does the crew oxygen system have?
• When is AUTO anti-ice prohibited?
• During which phases must the Fuel Cross-feed be OFF?
• Does pulling the FIRE DISCH handle cause an immediate engine shutdown?
• How many knots of adjustment may be made to Vref?
• When is engine oil quantity NOT accurate?
• What are the two controller rate selections in Primary Mode and their respective climb/descent rates?
• At what N2 percentage should starter engagement not be attempted?
• Once the EDM is activated, what will occur?
• Which fuel shutoff valve closes after selecting the ENGINE RUN switch to OFF?
• If messages are still in the CAS window, they can be cleared from the cue by overriding the checklist. How is this done?
• Which fuel pumps operate autonomously (no pilot control)?
• What are the two AUTO operating modes of the cabin pressure control system, and what are their general triggers?
• Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled?
• When the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the fuel feed SOV?
• What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference?
• How many hydraulic systems are powered by engine-driven pumps in this aircraft?
• Area lights draw power from which bus when active?
• What is the typical oil quantity when replenishment is performed?
• What is the minimum oxygen quantity required for dispatch?
• The hydraulic fluid in the system serves which functions?
• If use of the center or aft tank is planned, what is the minimum fuel tank load to ensure transfer-pump priming?
• What action resets the 3-minute start cycle clock?
• Which condition is typically the last met when following the normal checklist?
• If the APU run switch is selected to RUN prior to the end of the 60-second cool-down period, what happens?
• NAD83 is a datum primarily associated with which region?
• Autopilot automatically disengages in which combination of conditions?
• At what height is the wind speed measured above the surface for takeoff and landing calculations?
• When does the 45° bank indication appear on the HUD?
• What role does the EEC play regarding maximum reverse thrust above 65 KIAS?
• What does rotating the CVS control knob accomplish?
• Which fuel tank does not incorporate a pull handle?
• Turning the stall pusher switch to OFF has which effect?
• When will the auto-throttles transition to the RETARD mode?
• How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated?
• What are the two auto start-air envelopes and their associated airspeeds?
• What is the model designation for the Global 6000?
• Which hydraulic system operates the brakes when using the PARK/EMER handle?
• What does a black MSG label on the bottom of an FMS display indicate?
• Bleed Management Controllers extract bleed air from which engine stages?
• When the aircraft's battery master is OFF, do the area lights operate?
• What is the maximum flaps 30 speed?
• Where is the oxygen overboard discharge indicator located?
• Which pair of flap configurations share the same maximum speed of 210 KIAS?
• How many distinct temperature activation points exist among all engine fire detection sensing elements?
• Which system governs thrust management across all phases of flight?
• What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non-precision approach without vertical reference?
• What does the oxygen blowout disc look like when the system becomes over-pressurized?
• Which color on the display units represents the normal range?
• What is the APU generator rating on the ground?
• What is the maximum differential pressure during taxi and takeoff?
• On the NAV INIT page, which detail is shown to help verify system state at power-up?
• What is the normal RAT accumulator pre-charge pressure at 15°C?
• When the APU FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the APU FUEL SOV?
• What is shown on screen when the altitude readout is switched to meters?
• When is the probe heat system tested and operated?
• What is the other limitation for FRTT besides the wide cut/CIS restriction?
• What standing-water depth classifies a runway as contaminated?
• How can you determine if the refuel/defuel panel is powered during terminating/shutdown checklist?
• What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight?
• FRTT automatically operates under which conditions?
• Turning the battery off may clear which clock?
• Which data page contains the ARR tab used for Vref adjustments?
• Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit door?
• How do you know a circuit breaker has tripped?
• How do you know when a battery is not being charged?
• How is a DISCH handle operated when it is not illuminated, i.e., during emergency evacuations?
• What does the 200 KIAS note specify about gear doors?
• Which condition triggers an automatic abort due to ITT during start?
• How is the EMER/PARK BRAKE actuated?
• According to the start procedure, after how long of operation does the start valve close automatically?
• When is the "Too Low Gear" warning sounded?
• Where is the oil replenishing tank located?
• During an engine fire, which annunciation is associated with the discharge handle illumination?
• With supplement 20 restrictions, what is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
• What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff or landing near water above maximum landing weight?
• What is the tail height of the Global 6000?
• What thrust do the engines supply at sea level?
• When is wing anti-ice required on the ground?
• When combining Nose Wheel Steering inputs from the Tiller and Rudder, what is the maximum allowed total deflection?
• What is the maximum differential pressure upon landing?
• What is the maximum allowable engine oil temperature?
• What RPM range must be avoided during ground operations?
• What is the purpose of the power control units in the primary flight control system?
• At what altitude is the AUTO ditching sequence inhibited?
• What is one stated limitation for Global 6000 operations at elevations above 10,000 feet?
• What does pressing the EVENT button on the forward auxiliary control panel do?
• What automatic shutdowns are available on the ground, but not available in flight?
• What happens when you pull the LG Manual release handle?
• When is Mach trim available?
• Ditching operation below 15,000 feet is listed as a condition that triggers what action on the air conditioning packs?
• When switching from AP1 to AP2, what happens to the flight director modes?
• Which conditions cause the AC wing boost pumps to operate?
• After finishing the bleed leak checklist, synoptic flow lines change to what color?
• What is the bank angle for half bank?
• Which statement correctly reflects the prohibition on unusually steep approaches?
• Which statement is true about MAX spoilers usage?
• When switching to meters, what happens to the altitude readout?
• What happens to the AP/FD modes during a red windshear warning?
• What CAS message appears when a safety valve opens?
• During the refuel SOV test, what does the PRESEL window SOV FAIL message indicate?
• According to the maintenance program note, how should Flex be used?
• If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what will the FADEC command after 5 seconds?
• If no other vertical or lateral modes are armed, which basic modes will the autopilot engage when the AP button is pressed?
• What is the maximum APU RPM?
• What is the normal circling approach configuration and category?
• When may the SVS be inaccurate?
• Will failure of the flaps prevent operation of the slats?
• What page are departure obstacle calculations made?
• Where is the ram air inlet located?
• What does the placard next to the pressure relief valves indicate?
• When does the APU door position appear on the STATUS page?
• When is Flex Takeoff data not allowed?
• Which smoke detector is located in the forward avionics bay?
• Which item is NOT one of the six primary DC power sources?
• How will the Nose Wheel Steering operate after MANUAL gear extension?
• What is the capacity of the oil replenishment tank?
• Why might the APU require more than 3 start attempts in-flight?
• If the APU Fire Extinguishing System is inoperative, what limitation is placed on the APU?
• What are the Vmcg and Vmca speeds respectively?
• In the event of single generator operation, which AC Buses are automatically shed?
• What is the minimum engine speed to be maintained while in icing conditions?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the PARK/EMER operation and the normal braking system?
• What is the minimum speed at which the ice detector probes become ineffective?
• How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message canceled?
• Which wing houses the heat exchanger for hydraulic system 2?
• How is DME hold activated?
• Which item is NOT listed as an acceptable alternative when the electronic checklist fails?
• How many engine-driven AC generators are installed?
• What are the sources of airplane generated AC power?
• Above which altitude is AUX PRESS prohibited?
• What is the minimum fuel quantity for go-around per wing?
• If only one air conditioning pack is operating, which automatic action is described?
• What is the maximum usable fuel load per wing tank?
• Where is the cabin pressure and landing elevation information depicted?
• What data is used with QRH1 to determine the new takeoff distance and V1 when operating on a contaminated runway?
• During ground operation, what is the priority bleed source for engine starting?
• What outside air temperature condition must be met for replenishment?
• If cockpit temperature exceeds 40°C, what is the ground operation limitation for the display units?
• Which component serves as the oxygen overboard discharge indicator?
• What is the minimum oil temperature required to start the engine?
• After a cue opens due to multiple CAS messages, what action is required?
• Which hydraulic system(s) power the right elevator PCUs?
• Pins & collars are available to safe the doors. What does this note indicate?
• How is hydraulic fluid cooled?
• Which action closes the nose gear forward door?
• If during engine start a tailwind causes observed N1 rotation, what procedure must be used?
• Which controls can be used to turn on the nose-wheel compartment light?
• What cyan CAS window message indicates a charger failure?
• Which hydraulic systems are powered by engine driven pumps?
• What yellow message appears on the MFW when the WX range is set to 10 nm?
• You are in the takeoff position and notice the runway number and centerline is missing from the SVS image on the PFD. What does this mean?
• The timing for wing anti-ice indications depends on which factor?
• The bleed air from the engines is used for which purpose?
• Under what condition is the center tank fuel considered usable?
• What is Vmcg?
• When is a runway considered wet?
• How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed?
• After entering the new V1 speed during contaminated-runway procedures, what is the next step?
• After manual landing gear extension, which caution messages are displayed?
• What is the standard start duty cycle?
• How are changes for contaminated runway calculations made?
• What does the touch control steering switch (TCS) allow the pilot to do?
• For the APU, when is replenishment allowed after shutdown?
• Which category minimums apply to the circling approach described in the normal configuration?
• What pilot actions are required to initialize the FMS?
• What is the priority for navigation sensors used by the FMS?
• What is the correct prioritization order for checklists?
• When does the APU automatically shut down in flight?
• How do you determine the location of an open circuit breaker?
• What is the bleed pressure limit set by the PRV?
• On FMS system power up, what information is displayed on the NAV INIT page?
• How is the NWS system controlled and actuated?
• During EMER DEPRESS, what happens to the cabin altitude rate of climb limits?
• Who controls the thrust reversers?
• How many ice detectors are installed on the forward fuselage and when is the CAS posted?
• When winds exceed 20 knots, what is the restriction for thrust during taxi?
• What is max ITT for air start?
• Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes in the normal braking configuration?
• What is max ITT for ground start?
• When the cowl and wing anti-ice is set to AUTO, when does the anti-ice operate?
• Which statement describes the windshear mode WSHR during an active windshear warning?
• How is the hydraulic reservoir quantity accurately checked before engine start?
• In airport analysis, what does the limit code FL indicate?
• What happens to the 5-minute clock if hydraulic pressure dips below 1800 psi?
• If a message has cleared from the CAS window, it is still in the cue. How can those titles be removed?
• Which brakes operate from the PARK/EMER handle?
• What is the APU type?
• If wing anti-ice is active, and you manually select the APU bleed, what happens to wing anti-ice power?
• Which loops are monitored by the Bleed Management Controllers?
• What is the minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
• What does an amber LIM in the A/T mode annunciation indicate?
• What are the four main DC buses?
• What are the engine max continuous operating limitations?
• What is the overall length of the Global 6000?
• What is the maximum tailwind component for engine start?
• A boxed 'RA' appears in the lower portion of the attitude section. What does it mean, and how can you tell if it is a mis-compare or a fault?
• After selecting MAN pressurization, which indicator should the crew monitor on the STATUS page instead of LDG ELEV?
• Which sequence describes how to use the FMS for performance when the runway is contaminated by standing water or snow?
• Where does the FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE message appear?
• How is the crew alerted when the oxygen bottle drops below 75% (less than 1400 psi)?
• If crosswind exceeds 20 knots, the N1 must not exceed what percentage below 30 KIAS?
• Under contaminated runway conditions, which data should be used for takeoff performance instead of ARINC data?
• How is engine oil cooled?
• How are the gear doors closed after the gear bays have been inspected on the ground?
• Which engines are installed on the Global?
• Additions to the normal checklist for high-elevation operations include which of the following?
• Which hydraulic systems power the left aileron PCUs and which power the right aileron PCUs?
• When can engine oil levels be accurately checked?
• When does fuel transfer from the AFT tank start?
• Where does the pilot find information for Operations at Airport Elevations above 10,000 feet?
• How is the landing elevation set during QFE operations?
• Where is the roll disconnect mechanism located?
• What is the Global 6000 wingspan?
• When does the RAT automatically deploy?
• When should Rotorbow dry cranking be expected during automatic engine starts?
• What do the MFS panels provide?
• Why must the crew monitor the manual operation of the wing-to-wing transfer system?
• Which two buses are the Battery Direct Buses?
• How do you turn on the EVS camera anti-ice?
• The ram air valve will not open above what altitude?
• What does the Nose Wheel Steering input note specify about combining inputs?
• Can you dispatch with the APU door open?
• What is Vle?
• When is manual operation of the APU LCV not possible?
• All MKP QAK keys populate on which display?
• Which statement about bleed air port usage is correct when 5th stage flow is too low?
• What is the minimum bulk fuel temperature for start?
• Once airborne, which transfer balances the mains?
• When LDG ELEV is set to MAN, what is the initial altitude reference on the ground versus in flight?
• Pneumatic operation is limited above which altitude?
• How many first aid kits may be on board?
• Idle speed is NOT adjusted for which system?
• How is landing elevation manually programmed?
• If one engine generator is inoperative during dispatch, what is true about APU operation?
• How is a main landing gear overheat condition detected in the gear bays?
• Operation of the pressure relief valves is prohibited when which conditions apply?
• Which note is associated with wing behavior during a 180 degree turn?
• To what percentage is the APU governed by its FADEC?
• During TOGA climb-out in basic mode, the FD in green navigation holds the current heading and maintains a pitch within which range?
• What are the six primary DC power sources?
• How does the pilot change radio frequency spacing (8.33 or 25 kHz)?
• When does the Engine flameout CAS post?
• How many total sensing elements are in the engine fire detection system?
• If bleed air from the APU is used for cabin cooling, what is recommended?
• What are the conditions for in-flight icing operations?
• The manual ditching checklist includes which steps?
• To turn off the service lights, which action should be performed?
• Which color on the display units indicates a system limit has been exceeded?
• Which color on the display units represents a precautionary range?
• What is the maximum landing weight for the Global 6000?
• On the ground, what parameters are required to engage the auto-throttles?
• Which colors are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits on the display units?
• One condition under which the aft tank fuel is considered usable?
• Normal extension and retraction of the landing gear is controlled by which system?
• Which failure would cause the APU to shut down automatically in flight due to sensing issues?
• What does the FMQGC do in relation to center-to-wing transfer?
• In countries not compliant with WGS84, what is the restriction on SVS use?
• When LDG ELEV is set to MAN, which status message appears on the CAS indicating this mode?
• How do you review a non-normal checklist for a condition without a CAS message displayed?
• What does turning the VOX button on the audio panel do?
• What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STATUS page?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between NAD83 and WGS84?
• What is Vmo above 8,000 feet?
• How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when there is a failure of a MFS panel?
• What must flight crew wear if discharging a fire extinguisher in the cockpit?
• What happens if batteries are disconnected before servicing the oil?
• What is the APU load rating when on the ground?
• The CVS control knob is labeled Dim and BRT. Which statement best describes its historical and current function?
• What occurs automatically when a bleed air leak is detected?
• Where is the oxygen service panel?
• In green configuration aircraft, when is the baggage compartment detector connected?
• Where are normal procedures for high-elevation operations listed?
• For fuel load greater than 20,250 pounds, what is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance?
• What is the maximum flight altitude with the yaw damper disengaged?
• What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach?
• What is the maximum altitude for continuous operation of the pilot oxygen masks?
• During the test, the fuel load increase should not be visible on the tank displays within 30 seconds.
• Engine fire detection sensing elements are located in which of the following locations?
• What is the required repair interval for a Category B item?
• In FMS-assisted go-around during an ILS/GPS approach, at what altitude does GA switch to FMS NAV and VNAV?
• What happens to the N2 display when RPM falls below 76%?
• If the ILS approach is loaded when the active nav source is FMS/magenta, what happens to the LOC frequency?
• Halon 1211 is effective against which fire classes?
• Which functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide?
• During normal engine operation, how is the FADEC powered?
• Under which conditions is the automatic feature of the cowl and wing anti-ice disabled?
• Can flight crew manually enter runway slope?
• What is the engine 'Quick Relight' function?
• What is powered with external DC power?
• Which hydraulic system(s) power the left elevator PCUs?
• In flight, when hydraulic System 1 or 2 low pressure is detected, how long will the "B" pumps operate once activated?
• What is the maximum altitude for engine relight?
• Which prohibition applies to takeoffs at elevations above 10,000 feet?
• During windshear recovery, what does the flight director command after the initial pitch down?
• If a generator is reset after the RAT has deployed, how can normal power be restored?
• Do the green indicator lights on the Flight Control Panel indicate that the adjacent mode is currently active?
• How many Hydraulic ACMP pumps may be operating on the ground while on APU power?
• What indicates which auto start-air envelope you are in?
• Which hydraulic system is powered by the RAT (Ram Air Turbine)?
• When do the passenger masks automatically deploy?
• How is emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished? (cancels cool down mode)
• What is the maximum taxi/ramp weight for the Global 6000?
• How many separate detection loops are there for engine fire detection sensing elements?
• When wing anti-ice is selected ON, how long may it take before the EICAS displays green WAI indications?
• What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
• Where is the AFCS 1/2 switch located?
• When the ENGINE FIRE DISCH handle is pulled, what happens to the Pneumatics PRSOV?
• Which action is associated with the stall pusher interrupt when using the Master Disconnect Switch?
• What is Vlo?
• How is excessive air pressure due to heat build‑up in the main wheel/tire assembly released?
• During pressure refueling, what is the maximum usable total fuel load?
• On the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA), how are active and armed modes indicated?
• When does fuel transfer from the center tank to the wing tank begin?
• Which statement about the cowl anti-ice valve is true?
• What is the total engine oil quantity (max)?
• In Roll mode, if the bank angle exceeds 5°, what does the autopilot do?
• From the audio panel, how does the pilot enable the hot interphones?
• What does flat rating to ISA +20°C imply about flex usage?
• May the APU be left unattended?
• Which action is not recommended for autopilot disengagement?
• With the hydraulic ACMP "B" pump switches set to AUTO, when will the pumps activate?
• Which of the following is a CVS display option you might see?
• Can one engine supply two air conditioning packs simultaneously?
• What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles?
• If the Master AP fails, what happens to the AP and FD modes?
• Electrical load is limited above what altitude?
• In software version 4.5.8, what is the FD pitch command for a normal takeoff?
• What action stops the stick pusher immediately?
• How many start attempts are permitted on the APU per hour?
• How is windshield temperature controlled and when does pitot heat activate?
• How are the gear doors opened for gear bay inspection on the ground?
• What is the minimum pavement width required for a 180 degree turn with the Global 6000 when considering wing clearance?
• What appears on the screen when Autobrakes are selected on the FMS Departure Data format?
• When Autobrakes are selected on the FMS Departure Data format, what assumption is made about the landing distance number?
• Which references prohibit using the FMS as a sole navigation source for instrument approaches?
• What is the order of priority for trim modes that activate the horizontal stabilizer?
• Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU?
• In the context of pack operation, what must be done when using manual control?
• Which statement best describes the role of power control units in the primary flight control system?
• What is the maximum duration allowed with one engine inoperative during takeoff thrust?
• On RAT generator power, when are the DC buses isolated?
• What is the normal hydraulic operating pressure?
• With a single TRU failure, what happens to DC bus power?
• Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external power?
• What does it indicate if the flow lines show empty on the synoptic page?
• What reservoir quantity is required to permit oil replenishment?
• What is the minimum ambient temperature for takeoff?
• What is the maximum altitude in flight for bleed air extraction from the APU?
• With flaps at 30, which MFS are available?
• With the wing anti-ice cross-bleed switch in AUTO, the cross-bleed valve opens on which condition?
• In airport analysis, what does the limit code -O indicate?
• After the APU creates a 400 lb imbalance, what happens to balance the mains once airborne?
• What is the normal cabin differential pressure?
• How is the Takeoff mode cleared?
• What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions?
• Where should a pilot confirm that a mode is actually active beyond the green indicators?
• Under supplement 29 restrictions, what is the steepest angle for approaches using a VGP?
• What is the maximum number of people allowed on the Global 6000?
• When using VOR or NDB approaches with FMS guidance, which statement is true?
• What is the maximum altitude for APU generator operations?
• During takeoff, the automatic cowl and wing anti-ice feature is disabled.
• Which action ensures both main tanks feed during engine inoperative operation?
• When does the system switch from LP air to HP air?
• If there is only one CAS message, what happens when the ECL is selected on an MFD?
• At what level of fuel imbalance will the auto transfer system activate?
• What should be done to the nose gear before towing operations?
• How are the nose gear and forward doors normally actuated?
• Which flap configuration has the lowest maximum speed?
• If current acceleration is maintained, airspeed trend vector projects airspeed in how many seconds?
• What is the purpose of the Flap Override Switch?
• In software version 4.5.8, what is the FD pitch command for an engine Inoperative takeoff?
• If you miss the oil replenishment time window and need to add oil, what should you do?
• When is the auto-throttle takeoff HOLD control mode activated?
• If the VSI tape is not present on the HUD, how is the VSI value shown?
• When is the automatic emergency descent mode EDM enabled?
• What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?
• When will the takeoff data post?
• Can ARINC takeoff data be used when there is snow or standing water on the runway?
• What is the minimum flight crew required for the Global 6000?
• In Roll mode, how does the autopilot respond to bank angles below 5 degrees?
• When does wing transfer automatically initiate?
• What are the labels on the CVS control knob?
• What is Tire Limiting Speed?
• What is the recommended method to manually disengage the autopilot?
• If the Dedicated Generator fails, what power source does the FADEC revert to?
• A CYAN 'GEN FAIL' message appears during taxi out. What action should you take?
• How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored?
• What is Turbulence Penetration speed?
• When is high idle commanded by the EEC?
• What is the normal hydraulic system brake accumulator pre-charge pressure at 15°C?
• Auto shutdown occurs at what ITT on the ground?
• Where are adjustments to Vref made?
• Under supplement 40 restrictions and procedures, what is the maximum allowable ILS approach angle?
• What does the ST button on the audio panel do?
• What is the minimum oil temperature before increasing thrust above idle?
• The AFCS independent approach mode is activated under which condition?
• Which hydraulic systems operate the landing gear?
• How are the main wheel brakes powered and actuated?
• When does the flight guidance computer initially engage the yaw damper?
• How many AC buses does the AC electrical system have?
• The engines being flat rated to ISA +20° implies what about Flex usage?
• Placards near the accumulators show the correct pressure for what condition?
• At what altitude will the AFCS automatically switch to half bank?
• How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system?
• Which hydraulic system(s) power the rudder PCUs?
• Under normal operations, can thrust reversers be selected in flight?
• Extended Dry Crank duration is 30 seconds and is part of a total starter operation time controlled by the FADEC. How long is the total starter operation time?
• During engine start, if the cross-bleed valve knob is in AUTO, what happens?
• What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations?
• Which components are located in the left forward nose related to the oxygen system?
• What is the pack discharge temperature range for manual mode operation?
• When does the ENG FLAMOUT message appear?
• When is it recommended to top off the APU oil reservoir?
• What is the maximum engine oil consumption rate per hour?
• What are the limitations when using wide cut or CIS fuels?
• For engines, what is the replenishment timing window after shutdown?
• On the ground with APU power, which hydraulic pump may be operating?
• Where does the checklist appear when the ECS/SYS key is pressed?
• What happens to engines during a steep approach configured in the FMS?
• What happens when the XFEED SOV is opened?
• For fuel loads less than 19,450 pounds, what is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance?
• During single-generator operations, which bus or buses are the last to shed?
• When wing transfer initiates automatically, which pump starts on the heavier side?
• When are area lights available in relation to boarding lights and door status?
• How does the crew clear the EDM mode?
• Will manually entering landing speeds and sending the Cyan numbers prevent the use of 'FMS speeds' on the approach?
• When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound?
• Wing anti-ice may be operated at any RPM under which condition?
• What does FUEL QTY MISCOMPARE indicate?
• Which of the following is required for NAV-to-NAV transfer to occur?
• What visual indicator appears next to DME on the PFD when DME hold is activated?
• What is maximum slats extended speed?
• How many checklists may be displayed at the same time?
• During a loss of pressurization, what are the cabin altitude caution and red warning thresholds?
• What is the maximum load rating for the APU up to 37,000 feet without restriction?
• What is the typical cabin altitude at FL510?
• What is the maximum authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps?
• Which hydraulic system pressure is used to close the gear doors after the ground inspection?
• Where is the oxygen blowout disc located?